APSC CCE Prelims 2026 Question Paper with Answers & Expected Cutoff – All 100 Questions (GS Paper I)

✅ Today’s Exam: The APSC CCE Prelims 2026 was held on 5th July 2026. This page contains all 100 questions from GS Paper I with answers, compiled by Advait IAS faculty immediately after the examination. Bookmark this page — paper analysis and expected cut-off are included below.

📋 Table of Contents

1. APSC Prelims 2026 – Paper Overview and Pattern
2. Subject-wise Question Distribution and Analysis
3. Difficulty Level Review – Section by Section
4. All 100 Questions with Answers – APSC CCE Prelims 2026 GS Paper I
5. Quick Answer Key – All 100 Questions at a Glance
6. Expected Cut-off for APSC Prelims 2026
7. What to Do Now – Mains Preparation Starts Today
8. Frequently Asked Questions

Parameter	Details
Exam Name	APSC CCE Prelims 2026 – GS Paper I
Exam Date	5th July 2026
Total Questions	100
Total Marks	200
Marks per Correct Answer	+2
Negative Marking	0.5 (1/4 of 2 marks) per wrong answer
Duration	2 hours
Paper Nature	Merit-based (marks count toward Mains qualification)
Question Type	Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) – 4 options each

Subject / Topic Area	No. of Questions (Approx.)	Question Numbers	Difficulty
Assam History, Culture & Society	12	9, 11, 12, 13, 14, 18, 19, 86, 87, 89, 93, 94	🟡 Moderate
Assam Geography, Environment & Wildlife	8	21, 24, 26, 27, 29, 71, 75, 97	🟡 Moderate
Assam Polity, Governance & Schemes	9	35, 39, 43, 44, 51, 54, 62, 85, 91	🟠 Moderately Hard
Assam Arts, Literature & Language	4	28, 88, 90, 96	🟡 Moderate
Indian History (Ancient, Medieval, Modern)	10	5, 6, 7, 8, 10, 15, 16, 17, 42, 95	🟡 Moderate
Indian & World Geography	10	20, 25, 30, 31, 32, 33, 34, 68, 72, 92	🟡 Moderate
Indian Polity & Constitution	9	36, 37, 38, 46, 47, 48, 49, 50, 53	🟠 Moderately Hard
Indian Economy & Social Development	11	45, 55, 58, 59, 60, 61, 63, 64, 65, 74, 100	🟠 Moderately Hard
Environment, Ecology & Biodiversity	11	1, 2, 40, 56, 57, 66, 67, 69, 70, 73, 95	🟡 Moderate
Science & Technology	10	3, 76, 77, 78, 79, 80, 81, 82, 83, 84	🟠 Moderately Hard
Current Affairs (National & International)	6	4, 22, 23, 41, 98, 99	🔴 Hard

Section	Difficulty	Faculty Observation
Assam History & Culture	🟡 Moderate	Standard SCERT-level questions. Well-prepared candidates would have scored well. Ahom ruler matching (Q.14) and authors (Q.18) required specific knowledge.
Assam Geography & Wildlife	🟡 Moderate	Wildlife sanctuary matching (Q.29) was well-crafted. Rivers of Assam (Q.26, Q.97) required precise knowledge of North vs South bank tributaries.
Assam Polity & Schemes	🟠 Moderately Hard	Several scheme-matching questions (Q.39, Q.54) required very precise knowledge of scheme descriptions. Q.44 on commissions was factually demanding.
Indian History	🟡 Moderate	NCERT-level questions dominated. Q.10 (Indus Valley matching) was a standard PYQ-type. Q.16 on passive resistance and Q.17 on Tirthankara were straightforward.
Indian & World Geography	🟡 Moderate	Rock system chronology (Q.20) and ocean current matching (Q.34) were standard. Equator-passing countries (Q.25) had a tricky statement set.
Indian Polity & Constitution	🟠 Moderately Hard	Q.47 (Anti-defection 2/3rd provision), Q.49 (Meta/WhatsApp SC ruling), and Q.50 (BNSS criminal courts) were the most challenging polity questions.
Economy & Social Development	🟠 Moderately Hard	Q.58 on institutional economics and Q.59 on development approaches were conceptually demanding. Poverty committee chronology (Q.61) was straightforward for prepared candidates.
Science & Technology	🟠 Moderately Hard	Q.80 on refractive index (physics calculation-based) was the toughest Science question. Q.84 on LACHIT-1 (Assam satellite) was a well-chosen Assam S&T question.
Environment & Ecology	🟡 Moderate	Q.70 (IUCN status matching) and Q.66 (scientists and discoveries) were precise and required specific knowledge. Q.1 on Direct Air Capture was from recent climate technology news.
Current Affairs	🔴 Hard	Q.4 (FIFA World Cup 2026 — tricky with a false statement about 32 teams when 48 teams are participating) and Q.99 (BRICS 2025 Summit) were the most current and demanding questions.

📌 Key Observation: Question 38 (NITI Aayog) and Question 55 (GST Council composition) appear to have no answer marked in the compiled document — indicating these may be disputed or the answer options require official APSC confirmation. Advait IAS will update the answer key once APSC publishes the official key.

Q.1 — ‘Direct Air Capture’ is an emerging technology. Which of the following is true about ‘Direct Air Capture’?

(A) It is a technology used to segregate carbon dioxide (CO₂) from the atmosphere for storage or other use

(B) This technology enables us to capture CO₂ from atmosphere and release it into the ocean

(C) This technology enables to chemically break down CO₂ from captured air into carbon and oxygen

(D) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (A)

Q.2 — Which of the following statements about ‘Green Climate Fund’ is NOT true?

(A) It is the largest climate finance in the world.

(B) India receives funding for projects under ‘Green Climate Fund’.

(C) This fund was established within the framework of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.

(D) The headquarters of ‘Green Climate Fund’ is in Geneva, Switzerland.

✅ Correct Answer: (D) — The GCF headquarters is in Songdo, South Korea, not Geneva.

Q.3 — Consider the following statements about quantum computer (quantum computing):

1. It is a rapidly advancing field that uses quantum mechanics to process information using ‘qubits’ instead of binary bits.

2. Many computer giants in the world are competing to produce working models of quantum computers.

3. ‘Majorana 1’ by Microsoft is the world’s first quantum processor powered by topological qubits.

(A) 1 only   (B) 1 and 2 only   (C) 1, 2 and 3   (D) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (C)

Q.40 — Which of the following facts about the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) of India are NOT true?

1. The original plan comprised of nine key missions.

2. National Rainwater Harvesting Mission is one of the initiatives under NAPCC.

3. Sustaining the Himalayan ecosystem is one of the core missions under the plan.

4. NAPCC goals are in alignment with the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).

(A) 1 and 3   (B) 1 and 2   (C) 2 and 3   (D) 2 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (B) — NAPCC has 8 missions (not 9); there is no Rainwater Harvesting Mission under it.

Q.56 — Which of the following Ramsar Sites are located in North-East India?

1. Tampara Lake   2. Pala Wetland   3. Ansupa Lake   4. Rudrasagar Lake

(A) 1 and 2 only   (B) 2 and 3 only   (C) 2 and 4 only   (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (C) — Pala Wetland (Meghalaya) and Rudrasagar Lake (Tripura) are in NE India. Tampara and Ansupa are in Odisha.

Q.57 — The concept of sustainable development was popularized by:

(A) The Brundtland Commission   (B) The World Trade Organization   (C) The Club of Rome   (D) The UN Environment Programme

✅ Correct Answer: (A)

Q.66 — Choose the correct choice of scientist and the related discovery:

(A) Charles Robert Darwin : Taxonomy   (B) Edward Osborne Wilson : Natural Selection

(C) Carolus Linnaeus : Biodiversity   (D) Norman Myers : Biodiversity Hotspots

✅ Correct Answer: (D)

Q.67 — The most critical pathway of industrial pollution badly affecting ecosystem is:

(A) Direct emission of gases   (B) Noise pollution from machinery

(C) Secondary deposition into soil and waterbodies   (D) Visual landscape alteration

✅ Correct Answer: (C)

Q.68 — Tropical rainforests in India are mostly distributed in:

(A) Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim   (B) Sikkim, West Bengal, Bihar

(C) Odisha, Jharkhand, Bihar   (D) Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland

✅ Correct Answer: (D)

Q.69 — Why is species diversity on Earth highest in the tropical region?

(A) Very few predators

(B) There is no inter- and intra-specific competition in the tropical region

(C) Stable climatic conditions and receiving high solar energy which contributes to greater diversity and productivity

(D) High variation in environmental conditions exhibiting extreme cold and hot conditions

✅ Correct Answer: (C)

Q.70 — Match the following species with their IUCN Conservation Status:

List-I: a. One-horned rhinoceros   b. White-winged duck   c. Golden langur   d. Rhesus macaque

List-II: 1. Endangered   2. Least concern   3. Critically endangered   4. Vulnerable

(A) a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3   (B) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4   (C) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2   (D) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2

✅ Correct Answer: (C) — One-horned rhino: Vulnerable; White-winged duck: Critically Endangered; Golden langur: Endangered; Rhesus macaque: Least Concern

Q.73 — Which of the following GI-tagged fruits is incorrectly paired with its State?

(A) Kaji Nemu : Assam   (B) Tamenglong Orange : Manipur   (C) Memong Narang : Nagaland   (D) Khasi Mandarin : Meghalaya

✅ Correct Answer: (C) — Memong Narang is from Sikkim, not Nagaland.

Q.75 — According to India State of Forest Report 2023, which North-Eastern State has the highest percentage of forest cover relative to its total geographical area?

(A) Manipur   (B) Assam   (C) Mizoram   (D) Arunachal Pradesh

✅ Correct Answer: (C) — Mizoram has over 84% forest cover, the highest percentage in NE India.

Q.76 — Consider the following statements about LPG (Liquefied Petroleum Gas):

1. It consists mainly of methane.   2. Ethyl mercaptan is added to it for leak detection.   3. It burns with a blue flame.

(A) 1 and 2 only   (B) 2 and 3 only   (C) 1 and 3 only   (D) 1, 2 and 3

✅ Correct Answer: (B) — LPG consists mainly of propane and butane (not methane). Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Q.77 — Which of the following are applications of Ultrasonic waves?

1. Cleaning parts in hard-to-reach places   2. Detecting cracks and flaws in metal blocks   3. Echocardiography

(A) 1 and 2 only   (B) 2 and 3 only   (C) 1 and 3 only   (D) 1, 2 and 3

✅ Correct Answer: (D)

Q.78 — Which of the following is/are the reason(s) for using mercury in thermometers?

1. It does not stick to the glass tube.   2. It is a good conductor of heat.   3. It is opaque and shining.   4. It has a high boiling point.

(A) 1 and 2 only   (B) 2 and 3 only   (C) 1, 2, 3 and 4   (D) 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: (C)

Q.79 — Semiconductors are the foundation of:

(A) Computers and smartphones, integrated circuits (chips), electric bulbs, torch batteries

(B) Computers and smartphones, integrated circuits (chips), transistors, solar cells, LEDs

(C) Computer and smartphones, gramophone records, water filter candles

(D) Integrated circuits (chips), corrugated roof panels, metal detectors

✅ Correct Answer: (B)

Q.80 — The refractive index of ice is 1.31 and that of water is 1.33. Which of the following statements agree with this data?

1. The speed of light is greater in ice than in water.   2. The speed of light is same in ice and water.   3. The ratio of speed of light in air and that in water is equal to 1.33.   4. The speed of light in air is 1.31 times the speed of light in ice.

(A) 1 and 3 only   (B) 2 and 3   (C) 1, 3 and 4 only   (D) 3 and 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: (C) — Lower refractive index means higher speed. Since 1.31 < 1.33, light is faster in ice. Statement 3 and 4 are mathematically correct definitions of refractive index.

Q.81 — Which day is celebrated annually on 23rd October from 6:02 a.m. to 6:02 p.m.?

(A) Mole Day   (B) Pi Day   (C) Tau Day   (D) Bicycle Day

✅ Correct Answer: (A) — Mole Day commemorates Avogadro’s number (6.02 × 10²³).

Q.82 — The mass of an object is 6 kg. What would be its weight when measured on the surface of the Moon?

(A) 9.8 N   (B) 6 N   (C) 58.8 N   (D) 15.8 N

✅ Correct Answer: (A) — Moon’s gravity is 1/6th of Earth’s. Weight on Moon = 6 × (9.8/6) = 9.8 N.

Q.83 — Oozing of water droplets from tips or edges of leaves, usually at night, is called:

(A) Transpiration   (B) Guttation   (C) Diffusion   (D) Evaporation

✅ Correct Answer: (B)

Q.84 — Which of the following statements are best related to LACHIT-1?

1. It is an AI-based drone interceptor.   2. It was a satellite launched aboard PSLV-C62 mission.   3. It was a student-developed experimental satellite built in Assam.   4. It is a supercomputer installed in IIT, Guwahati.

(A) 1 and 2   (B) 1 and 3   (C) 2 and 3   (D) 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (C) — LACHIT-1 is Assam’s first student-built satellite, launched on PSLV-C62.

Q.5 — The ‘Begram Ivories’ can be dated between:

(A) 1st century CE or 2nd century CE   (B) 3rd century CE to 5th century CE   (C) 3rd century BCE to 1st century BCE   (D) 6th century CE to 7th century CE

✅ Correct Answer: (A)

Q.6 — The rock-cut caves in Udayagiri and Khandagiri Hills in Odisha belong to which of the following?

(A) Mahayana Buddhism   (B) Hinayana Buddhism   (C) Jainism   (D) Ajivikas

✅ Correct Answer: (C)

Q.7 — The Banskhera inscription is associated with which of the following kings?

(A) Ashoka   (B) Kanishka   (C) Harshavardhana   (D) Dharmapala

✅ Correct Answer: (C)

Q.8 — The ancient river Saraswati mentioned in the Rigveda is identified with which of the following rivers?

(A) Ganga   (B) Yamuna   (C) Sutlej   (D) Ghaggar-Hakra

✅ Correct Answer: (D)

Q.10 — Match the Indus Valley Civilization sites with their notable archaeological findings:

List-I: a. Lothal   b. Kalibangan   c. Dholavira   d. Banawali

List-II: 1. Evidence of a ploughed field   2. Remains of a large dockyard   3. A terracotta replica of a plough   4. Ten large-sized signs of the script

(A) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4   (B) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3   (C) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3   (D) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4

✅ Correct Answer: (B)

Q.15 — Which of the following statements about the play Nil Darpan are true?

1. It was written in 1860.   2. Its author is Munshi Premchand.   3. Its author is Dinabandhu Mitra.   4. It portrayed the oppression of Bengal peasants by the European indigo planters.

(A) 1, 2 and 4   (B) 1 and 3 only   (C) 1 and 2 only   (D) 1, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (D)

Q.16 — Who was the first propounder of the doctrine of ‘passive resistance’?

(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak   (B) Aurobindo Ghosh   (C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale   (D) Mahatma Gandhi

✅ Correct Answer: (B)

Q.17 — Mahavira was considered to be the ___ Tirthankara:

(A) 21st   (B) 22nd   (C) 23rd   (D) 24th

✅ Correct Answer: (D)

Q.42 — Place the following events in ascending order from the time of their commencement:

1. Operation Meghdoot   2. Operation Vijay   3. Operation Smiling Buddha   4. Galwan Valley Standoff

(A) 2 → 3 → 1 → 4   (B) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4   (C) 2 → 3 → 4 → 1   (D) 1 → 3 → 2 → 4

✅ Correct Answer: (A) — Smiling Buddha (1974) → Meghdoot (1984) → Vijay (1999) → Galwan (2020)

Q.9 — Which of the following inscriptions of early Assam was issued by Bhaskaravarman?

(A) Doobi copper plates   (B) Nagajari stone inscriptions   (C) Tezpur copper plates   (D) Bargaon copper plates

✅ Correct Answer: (A)

Q.11 — With reference to the contribution of Semsonsing Ingti, consider the following statements:

1. He played a crucial role as co-opted member in the Bordoloi Sub-Committee for the inclusion of the Karbis under the Sixth Schedule.

2. He encouraged scattered Karbi groups to settle in the Mikir Hills to acquire government facilities.

3. He advocated for the complete separation of Karbi Anglong from Assam to form an independent Karbi State.

4. He is also known as the Father of Karbi Anglong Autonomous Council.

(A) 1 and 4   (B) 1 and 2 only   (C) 2 and 3 only   (D) 1, 2 and 3

✅ Correct Answer: (A)

Q.12 — King Rudra Singha wanted to conquer Bengal and extend his territory because:

1. He wanted to form a Hindu confederacy   2. He wanted to be the all-powerful supreme ruler in India   3. He wanted to include a part of the River Ganga in his kingdom   4. He wanted to take revenge upon the Mughals

(A) 1 and 3 only   (B) 3 only   (C) 1, 2 and 3   (D) 4

✅ Correct Answer: (A)

Q.13 — Assertion (A): Ralph Fitch visited Koch Bihar in 1585 and met King Naranarayan as a benevolent monarch. Reason (R): Because Naranarayan established hospitals even for animals and birds and they did not kill any living creatures.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly explains (A)   (B) Both are false   (C) (A) is true but (R) is false   (D) (R) is true but (A) is false

✅ Correct Answer: (A)

Q.14 — Match the Ahom names (List-I) with the Ahom rulers (List-II):

List-I: a. Supatpha   b. Sukhrungpha   c. Sutanpha   d. Suhitpongpha

List-II: 1. Rudra Singha   2. Gadadhar Singha   3. Gaurinath Singha   4. Siva Singha

(A) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3   (B) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1   (C) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-3   (D) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2

✅ Correct Answer: (A)

Q.18 — Match authors (List-I) with their works (List-II):

List-I: a. Hema Saraswati   b. Bakul Kayastha   c. Kaviraj Chakraborty   d. Dutiram Hazarika

List-II: 1. Kali Bharat Buranji   2. Prahlada Charita   3. Kitabat Manjari   4. Sankhachuda Vadha

(A) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1   (B) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4   (C) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4   (D) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2

✅ Correct Answer: (A)

Q.19 — The French traveller Jean-Baptiste Chevalier visited ancient Assam during the reign of which Ahom ruler in mid-18th century?

(A) Rajeswar Singha   (B) Rudra Singha   (C) Pratap Singha   (D) Jayadhwaj Singha

✅ Correct Answer: (A)

Q.28 — Match dress forms (List-II) with their Assam communities (List-I):

List-I: a. Karbi   b. Dimasa   c. Bodo   d. Rabha

List-II: 1. Kambang   2. Pokok   3. Dokhona   4. Rijamphain

(A) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4   (B) a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1   (C) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4   (D) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4

✅ Correct Answer: (B)

Q.85 — Assamese language was recognised as a classical language in 2024. Consider the following statements:

1. The recognition came from Central Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL), Mysuru.

2. The recognition enables establishment of a Central University for Assamese Language.

3. The recognition facilitates establishment of an Advanced Centre for Classical Assamese Language.

4. As a result, Assam Sahitya Sabha will receive financial grants from the Government of India directly.

(A) 1 only   (B) 2 and 3   (C) 3 only   (D) 1 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (C)

Q.86 — Match the monuments (List-I) with their places (List-II):

List-I: a. Rock-cut temple   b. Bhubaneswari temple   c. Mahabhairab temple   d. Ghanashyam temple (Dol)

List-II: 1. Joysagar   2. Tezpur   3. Maibong   4. Guwahati

(A) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2   (B) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1   (C) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4   (D) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3

✅ Correct Answer: (B)

Q.87 — Which distinction did Mayank Chakraborty achieve in 2026 for the first time for Assam and North-East India?

(A) Chess Grandmaster   (B) All England Open Badminton Champion   (C) Wimbledon Junior Boys’ Champion in Tennis   (D) Played for India in Under 19 T20 World Cup

✅ Correct Answer: (A) — Mayank Chakraborty became Assam’s and NE India’s first Chess Grandmaster.

Q.89 — Among the former Chief Ministers of Assam listed below, who were also once the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly of Assam?

1. Mahendra Mohan Choudhury   2. Jogendra Nath Hazarika   3. Kesab Chandra Gogoi   4. Anwara Taimur

(A) 1 and 4   (B) 2, 3 and 4   (C) 1 and 2   (D) 2 and 3 only

✅ Correct Answer: (C)

Q.90 — Which of the following civilian honours was/were awarded to Dr. Bhupen Hazarika during his lifetime?

1. Padma Shri   2. Padma Bhushan   3. Padma Vibhushan   4. Bharat Ratna

(A) 1 and 2   (B) 1 and 3   (C) 1 only   (D) 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (A) — Padma Shri (1977) and Padma Bhushan (2001) were awarded during his lifetime. Padma Vibhushan and Bharat Ratna were posthumous.

Q.93 — Match dance forms (List-I) with their ethnic communities (List-II):

List-I: a. Farkanti Dance   b. Bahuwa Dance   c. Wangala Dance   d. Langkhun Dance

List-II: 1. Garo   2. Tiwa   3. Rabha   4. Sonowal Kachari

(A) a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1   (B) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3   (C) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4   (D) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2

✅ Correct Answer: (D)

Q.94 — Match Samhati of Neo-Vaishnavism (List-I) with corresponding Sattra (List-II):

List-I: a. Brahma Samhati   b. Purush Samhati   c. Nika Samhati   d. Kaal Samhati

List-II: 1. Narowa Sattra   2. Kamalabari Sattra   3. Auniati Sattra   4. Mayamara Sattra

(A) a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2   (B) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2   (C) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4   (D) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4

✅ Correct Answer: (D)

Q.21 — Consider the following pairs about soil types in Assam:

1. Alluvial Soil: Brahmaputra and Barak Valleys   2. Red Soil: Karbi Anglong and North Cachar Hills   3. Laterite Soil: Meghalaya Plateau fringe areas   4. Sandy Soil: River Islands (Chars) and riverbeds

(A) 1, 3 and 4 only   (B) 2 and 3 only   (C) 1, 2 and 4 only   (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (D)

Q.24 — Arrange the following tribes of Assam in descending order of population (2011 Census):

1. Mishing   2. Rabha   3. Bodo   4. Karbi

(A) 2→3→4→1   (B) 3→1→4→2   (C) 4→1→2→3   (D) 1→2→3→4

✅ Correct Answer: (B) — Bodo > Mishing > Karbi > Rabha

Q.26 — Which of the following rivers flow into Assam and originate from Bhutan?

(A) Barak, Feni, Aie, Kulsi   (B) Beki, Raidak, Sankosh, Manas   (C) Kapili, Digaru, Jinjiram, Kulsi   (D) Dawki, Tuivai, Irang, Feni

✅ Correct Answer: (B)

Q.27 — Consider the following statements:

1. Marat Longri Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in Dima Hasao district of Assam.

2. Dehing Patkai National Park is known as the Amazon of the East.

3. Sikhna Jwhwlao National Park is the 8th National Park of Assam.

4. Manas is the only biosphere reserve of Assam.

(A) 1 and 2 only   (B) 1, 2 and 4   (C) 2 and 3 only   (D) 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (C)

Q.29 — Match wildlife sanctuaries (List-I) with their features (List-II):

List-I: a. Pobitora   b. Hollongapar   c. Deepor Beel   d. Chakrashila

List-II: 1. Golden langur   2. High rhino density   3. Ramsar Site   4. Gibbon habitat

(A) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4   (B) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4   (C) a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1   (D) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4

✅ Correct Answer: (C)

Q.71 — National Waterway 2 (NW-2) connects which stretch of rivers?

(A) Dhubri–Sadiya on River Brahmaputra   (B) Lakhipur–Bhanga on River Barak   (C) Umngot (Dawki) River   (D) Dhansiri River

✅ Correct Answer: (A)

Q.97 — Classify the following tributaries of Brahmaputra into North Bank and South Bank:

1. Kolong   2. Bargang   3. Aie   4. Krishnai   5. Belsiri   6. Manah   7. Disang   8. Dikrong   9. Jhanji   10. Kakodonga

(A) North: 1,3,5,8,9 / South: 2,4,6,7,10   (B) North: 3,5,7,9,10 / South: 1,2,4,6,8

(C) North: 3,4,9,1,2 / South: 5,6,7,8,10   (D) North: 2,3,5,6,8 / South: 1,4,7,9,10

✅ Correct Answer: (D)

Q.35 — The Chief Minister’s Green Fellowship was launched in Assam in 2024–25. What are some of the objectives?

1. Creating skilled and environmentally conscious youth   2. Providing internship on ‘Environmental Sustainability’ in a reputed foreign institution   3. Facilitating legislative policy training for select youth   4. Enabling entry of youth from marginalised communities into environmental policy making

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only   (B) 1, 3 and 4 only   (C) 1 and 2 only   (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (A)

Q.39 — Match schemes (List-I) with their key focus areas (List-II):

List-I: a. Guru Dakshina Scheme   b. Mukhyamantri Jibon Prerana Scheme   c. Governor Assam’s Pratibha Protsahan Yojana   d. Orunodoi Scheme

List-II: 1. Poverty alleviation   2. Financial assistance to non-provincial teachers   3. Graduate students   4. Civil Service aspirants

(A) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1   (B) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2   (C) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1   (D) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2

✅ Correct Answer: (C)

Q.43 — Which of the following regarding the Assam Panchayat Act, 1994 are correct?

1. The Act establishes a three-tier system.   2. The Act provides reservation of seats for SC, ST and women for offices of President/Vice President of Zila Parishad and Anchalik Panchayat.   3. The Act outlines specific, mandatory revenue sharing from Haat (market) sales.   4. The latest amendment is the Assam Panchayat (Amendment) Act, 2025.

(A) 1, 2 and 4 only   (B) 1 and 2 only   (C) 3 and 4 only   (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (D)

Q.44 — Match List-I (Commissions) with List-II (Subjects):

List-I: a. Justice Soumitra Saikia Commission   b. Justice Anima Hazarika Commission   c. Justice K.N. Saikia Commission   d. Hari Shankar Brahma Committee

List-II: 1. Coal mining tragedy in Dima Hasao   2. Death of Zubeen Garg   3. Protection of land rights of indigenous people   4. Extra-judicial investigation

(A) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1   (B) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3   (C) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4   (D) a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1

✅ Correct Answer: (B)

Q.54 — Match Assam schemes (List-I) with their provisions (List-II):

List-I: a. Orunodoi Scheme   b. Assam Arogya Nidhi (AAN) Scheme   c. Swahid Kushal Konwar Sarbajanin Briddha Pension Achoni   d. Kanaklata Mahila Sabalikaran Yojana

List-II: 1. Pension scheme for senior citizens   2. Livelihood for women through SHGs   3. Monthly financial assistance to poor households via DBT   4. Financial assistance for serious diseases for families with income below ₹5 lakh

(A) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2   (B) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1   (C) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4   (D) a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3

✅ Correct Answer: (A)

Q.62 — Assam State Rural Livelihoods Mission Society (ASRLMS) has been implementing DAY-NRLM in Assam since:

(A) 11th November, 2011   (B) 11th December, 2011   (C) 11th November, 2013   (D) 11th November, 2014

✅ Correct Answer: (A)

Q.91 — Match books (List-I) with authors (List-II):

List-I: a. A Comprehensive History of Assam   b. The Comprehensive History of Assam   c. Assam in the Days of the Company   d. The Tai and the Tai Kingdoms

List-II: 1. Dr. Surya Kumar Bhuyan   2. Padmeswar Gogoi   3. Swarnalata Baruah   4. Heramba Kanta Borpujari

(A) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3   (B) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2   (C) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2   (D) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3

✅ Correct Answer: (B)

Q.20 — Arrange the following rock systems of India in chronological order of formation:

1. Dharwar Rock System   2. Vindhyan Rock System   3. Archaean Rock System   4. Gondwana Rock System

(A) 1→3→2→4   (B) 3→2→1→4   (C) 1→2→3→4   (D) 3→1→2→4

✅ Correct Answer: (D) — Archaean → Dharwar → Vindhyan → Gondwana

Q.22 — Which of the following pairs regarding festivals of North-East India are incorrectly matched?

1. Moatsu Festival: Nagaland   2. Bwisagu Festival: Meghalaya   3. Sangai Festival: Manipur   4. Thabal Chongba: Mizoram

(A) 1 and 3   (B) 2 and 4   (C) 2 and 3   (D) 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (B) — Bwisagu is a Bodo festival of Assam (not Meghalaya); Thabal Chongba is a Manipuri dance (not Mizoram).

Q.25 — Which statements about location of countries in relation to the equator are NOT correct?

1. The equator passes through Gabon, Congo, Uganda and Kenya.   2. Malaysia, Singapore, Philippines and Brunei are located on the north of equator.   3. The equator passes through Ecuador, Colombia, Venezuela and Guyana.   4. The equator does not pass through Maldives and Indonesia.

(A) 1 only   (B) 2 and 4   (C) 1 and 2   (D) 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (D) — Venezuela and Guyana are not crossed by the equator; the equator does pass through Indonesia.

Q.30 — Which of the following Island/Volcano–Country pairs are incorrectly matched?

1. Hawaii: USA   2. Mount Fuji: Philippines   3. Barren Island: India   4. Mayon: Indonesia

(A) 1 and 2   (B) 1 and 3   (C) 2 and 4   (D) 2 and 3

✅ Correct Answer: (C) — Mount Fuji is in Japan (not Philippines); Mayon Volcano is in Philippines (not Indonesia).

Q.31 — Consider the following statements:

1. The Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman.   2. The Panama Canal connects the Atlantic Ocean (via Caribbean Sea) to the Pacific Ocean.   3. The Karakum Canal is a major irrigation canal in Iran.   4. The Indira Gandhi Canal originates from Harike Barrage in Punjab and flows through Rajasthan.

(A) 1, 2 and 4 only   (B) 1, 2 and 3 only   (C) 1, 3 and 4 only   (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (A) — Karakum Canal is in Turkmenistan, not Iran.

Q.32 — Consider the following statements about monsoon:

1. The monsoon winds always blow from land to sea during summer.   2. The Bay of Bengal branch brings rainfall to North-East India.   3. El Niño leads to weaker monsoon rainfall in India.   4. Tamil Nadu receives most of its rainfall during the North-East monsoon.

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4   (B) 1, 3 and 4 only   (C) 2 and 3 only   (D) 2, 3 and 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: (D) — Statement 1 is false: during summer, monsoon winds blow from sea to land.

Q.33 — With reference to forest cover of India, consider the following statements:

1. Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in terms of area.   2. Mizoram has more than 80% forest cover.   3. India State of Forest Report 2023 reports India’s total forest cover at about 21.76% of geographical area.   4. India’s forest cover is unevenly distributed across States.

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4   (B) 1, 3 and 4 only   (C) 2 and 4 only   (D) 2, 3 and 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: (A)

Q.34 — Which of the following Ocean Current–Ocean Name pairs are correctly matched?

1. Gulf Stream: Atlantic Ocean   2. Kuroshio: Pacific Ocean   3. Benguela: Indian Ocean   4. Peru: Southern Ocean

(A) 1 and 2 only   (B) 2 and 4 only   (C) 2 and 3 only   (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (A) — Benguela is in Atlantic Ocean; Peru Current is in Pacific Ocean.

Q.72 — How many biogeographic zones and provinces are there in India?

(A) 10 biogeographic zones and 26 provinces   (B) 10 biogeographic zones and 22 provinces   (C) 12 biogeographic zones and 24 provinces   (D) 26 biogeographic zones and 10 provinces

✅ Correct Answer: (A)

Q.92 — With regard to the Strait of Hormuz, which statements are correct?

1. Both USA and Iran share the ownership of the Strait of Hormuz.   2. Both Iran and Oman have geographical control over the Strait due to their proximity.   3. The USA, Israel, Iran War (2026) is being fought for control of the Strait.   4. It is a waterway between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman.

(A) 1 and 2 only   (B) 1, 2 and 3   (C) 2 and 4   (D) 3 only

✅ Correct Answer: (C)

Q.36 — Which statements about the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Bill, 2026 are correct?

1. The Bill made changes in the definition of a transgender person.   2. It makes recommendation of a designated medical board mandatory for the District Magistrate to issue a certificate of identity.   3. It provides for reservation of transgender persons in educational institutions.   4. It expands the ambit of offences against transgender persons and increases punishment.

(A) 1 and 2 only   (B) 1, 2 and 4 only   (C) 2, 3 and 4 only   (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (B)

Q.37 — Identify the FALSE statements about lateral entry into Civil Services in India:

1. Individuals from private sector, autonomous bodies, or PSUs are eligible.   2. Lateral entry must follow existing reservation policy norms.   3. Lateral entrants are appointed on contract for 3 years, extendable to a maximum of 5 years.   4. Women are given special emphasis under lateral entries.

(A) 2 and 3   (B) 2 and 4   (C) 3 and 4   (D) 1 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (B) — Lateral entry does not mandatorily follow reservation norms; there is no special emphasis for women.

Q.38 — Which of the following statements is correct about NITI Aayog?

(A) One of the objectives of NITI Aayog is to foster cooperative federalism.

(B) NITI Aayog looks after the allocation of resources to the States from the point of view of infrastructural needs.

(C) Atal Innovative Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative launched by NITI Aayog.

(D) The Governing Council of NITI Aayog comprises full-time members and special invitees.

⚠️ Answer: (C) — AIM is correct. Note: (A) is also a stated objective. Official APSC answer key awaited for confirmation.

Q.46 — The President of India summons, prorogues and dissolves the legislature. What does ‘prorogue’ mean?

(A) To terminate a sitting   (B) To terminate the session   (C) To adjourn the sitting sine die   (D) None of the above

✅ Correct Answer: (B)

Q.47 — According to the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India (as amended by 91st Amendment Act, 2003), a merger between political parties is exempt from disqualification on grounds of defection only if:

(A) At least 1/3rd of the members of the legislative party opts to form a new fraction

(B) A simple majority of the members approves the merger

(C) Not less than 2/3rds of the members of the legislative party agree to such a merger

(D) The merger is ratified by a unanimous vote of the legislative party

✅ Correct Answer: (C)

Q.48 — With reference to the Supreme Court of India, identify the incorrect statement:

(A) The Supreme Court was established under Article 124 of the Constitution.

(B) It came into existence on 26th January, 1950.

(C) The original Constitution provided for one Chief Justice and seven puisne judges.

(D) The proceedings of the Supreme Court are conducted only in Hindi.

✅ Correct Answer: (D) — Supreme Court proceedings are conducted in English, not Hindi.

Q.49 — Assertion (A): The Court characterised Meta’s data sharing practices as a “decent way of committing theft of private information”. Reason (R): The “take-it-or-leave-it” approach ensures that digital consent is efficiently gathered through implicit acceptance.

(A) Both true and R correctly explains A   (B) Both true but R does not explain A   (C) A is true but R is false   (D) A is false but R is true

✅ Correct Answer: (C) — The Court criticised the take-it-or-leave-it approach; it did not validate it.

Q.50 — According to the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which of the following is NOT classified as one of the Criminal Courts in the States?

(A) Courts of Session   (B) Judicial Magistrates of the First Class   (C) Lok Adalats   (D) Executive Magistrates

✅ Correct Answer: (C)

Q.53 — Match Articles (List-I) with North-Eastern States they apply to (List-II):

List-I: a. Article 371A   b. Article 371B   c. Article 371C   d. Article 371G

List-II: 1. Assam   2. Manipur   3. Mizoram   4. Nagaland

(A) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4   (B) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1   (C) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3   (D) a-4, b-2, c-3, d-1

✅ Correct Answer: (C) — 371A: Nagaland, 371B: Assam, 371C: Manipur, 371G: Mizoram

Q.45 — In the 2025–26 Budget, the Indian Government sought to promote AVGC (animation, visual effects, gaming and comics) as part of the country’s:

(A) Skill industry   (B) Orange economy   (C) Gig economy   (D) New skill economy

✅ Correct Answer: (B)

Q.55 — The Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council comprises which of the following members?

(A) The Prime Minister, Union Finance Minister, Union MoS for Finance, Finance Ministers of all States and UTs with legislatures

(B) Union Finance Minister, Union MoS for Finance, Finance Ministers of all States and UTs with legislatures

(C) Union Finance Minister, Economic Advisor to PM, Union Home Minister, Chief Ministers of all States and UTs

(D) Union Finance Minister and Chief Ministers of all States and UTs

⚠️ Answer: (B) — Official APSC answer key awaited for confirmation.

Q.58 — Which of the following statements are correct about institutions and development?

1. Many economists argue that weak institutional structures are the fundamental cause of underdevelopment.   2. Institutions are the humanly devised constraints that shape human interactions.   3. Economic institutions influence the structure of economic incentives in society.   4. Extractive institutions create ‘vicious circles’ where poor governance, property rights violations, and rent-seeking hinder long-term economic development.

(A) 1 only   (B) 1 and 2 only   (C) 1, 2 and 3 only   (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (D)

Q.59 — Which of the following pairs is/are incorrectly matched?

1. Basic Needs Approach: ILO   2. Capability Approach: Amartya Sen   3. Human Capital Approach: Gary Becker and Theodore Schultz   4. Human Development Approach: IMF

(A) 1 and 3   (B) 1 and 2 only   (C) 1, 2 and 4   (D) 4 only

✅ Correct Answer: (D) — Human Development Approach is associated with UNDP, not IMF.

Q.60 — Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana aims at creating what opportunity in urban areas?

1. Self-employment   2. Skill training   3. Livelihood   4. Wage employment

(A) 1 only   (B) 1, 2 and 4   (C) 2 and 3   (D) 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (B)

Q.61 — Arrange the following in chronological order of constitution to define poverty line:

1. Alagh Committee   2. Tendulkar Committee   3. Lakdawala Committee   4. Rangarajan Committee

(A) 1→3→2→4   (B) 1→2→4→3   (C) 1→2→3→4   (D) 4→1→2→3

✅ Correct Answer: (A) — Alagh (1979) → Lakdawala (1993) → Tendulkar (2005) → Rangarajan (2012)

Q.63 — NIPUN Bharat Mission is associated with:

(A) The achievement of Foundational Literacy and Numeracy (FLN)   (B) Women empowerment   (C) Skill formation   (D) Livelihood generation

✅ Correct Answer: (A)

Q.64 — The Stand-Up India Scheme specifically targets inclusive entrepreneurship among:

(A) SC/ST and women   (B) Government employees and retired personnel   (C) Person with disability (PWD) and women   (D) Economically weaker section and women

✅ Correct Answer: (A)

Q.65 — A critical challenge faced by PM-KISAN and PMAY in achieving complete inclusive coverage is:

(A) A lack of political will to implement the schemes

(B) Difficulties in accurately identifying and targeting eligible beneficiaries due to land record complexities, exclusion errors, and a lack of digital literacy

(C) Universal rejection of the scheme by the targeted population

(D) A lack of trained administrative staff in rural areas

✅ Correct Answer: (B)

Q.74 — What is Indian Knowledge Systems (IKS)?

(A) Deep understanding of human evolution, anthropocene and infrastructure development

(B) Conserving ecological balance by avoiding depletion of natural resources

(C) Body of knowledge and spiritual belief that evolves through adaptive process and is transmitted orally

(D) Traditional and holistic wisdom, practices and knowledge developed in India

✅ Correct Answer: (D)

Q.100 — Consider the following about India’s crude oil scenario:

1. India imports more than 85% of crude oil.   2. Russia is the single largest supplier of crude oil to India.   3. India’s strategic petroleum reserves can cover about 9 days emergency requirement.   4. The oil marketing companies separately maintain a reserve of about 2 months requirement.

(A) 1 and 2 only   (B) 1 and 3 only   (C) 1, 3 and 4 only   (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (D)

Q.4 — Which of the following statements about the ongoing FIFA World Cup 2026 (soccer) is/are true?

1. A total of 32 teams are taking part in the tournament.   2. USA, Canada and Mexico are jointly hosting the tournament.   3. It is the first time 3 nations are jointly hosting the FIFA World Cup.

(A) 1 only   (B) 2 and 3 only   (C) 1 and 2 only   (D) 1, 2 and 3

✅ Correct Answer: (B) — FIFA World Cup 2026 has 48 teams (not 32); USA, Canada and Mexico are jointly hosting — the first time 3 nations co-host.

Q.23 — Which of the following statements about the languages of India are correct?

1. India has 22 languages listed in the Eighth Schedule.   2. Tamil is the oldest surviving classical language in India.   3. Hindi is the mother tongue for over 50% of India’s population.   4. Sanskrit is recognised as a classical language but is spoken as a mother tongue by less than 0.1% of the population.

(A) 1 and 4 only   (B) 1, 2 and 4 only   (C) 2, 3 and 4 only   (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (B) — Hindi is the mother tongue for approximately 43–44% of the population (not 50%+).

Q.41 — Consider the following statements about institutional mechanisms under India’s Act East Policy:

1. East Asia Summit (EAS) serves as the premier forum for strategic dialogue in the Asia-Pacific region.   2. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project involves sea, river, and road routes boosting trade and access to NE India.   3. Forum for India-Pacific Islands Cooperation (FIPIC) extends India’s reach to Pacific Island nations.   4. Mekong-Ganga Cooperation connects India with islands of South-East Asian countries.

(A) 1 and 4   (B) 2, 3 and 4   (C) 2 and 3 only   (D) 1, 2 and 3

✅ Correct Answer: (D) — Statement 4 is false: Mekong-Ganga connects India with mainland SE Asian countries (Mekong region), not islands.

Q.51 — Indicate the correctly matched Land Customs Stations with their States:

1. Hatisar: Assam   2. Sutarkandi: Assam   3. Moreh: Nagaland   4. Borsora: Manipur

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only   (B) 1 and 2 only   (C) 2, 3 and 4 only   (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (B) — Moreh is in Manipur (not Nagaland); Borsora is also in Assam.

Q.52 — The criteria for identifying Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) are:

1. Pre-agricultural level of technology   2. Low level of literacy   3. Economic backwardness   4. A declining or stagnant population

(A) 1 and 2 only   (B) 3 and 4 only   (C) 2, 3 and 4 only   (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (D)

Q.88 — The monumental work compiled by Sir G. A. Grierson and published in 1904 is known as LSI. What is the full form of LSI?

(A) Languages Survey of India   (B) Linguistic Survey of India   (C) Lingual Survey of India   (D) Languages and Speeches of India

✅ Correct Answer: (B)

Q.95 — Match environmental movements (List-I) with their leaders/organisations (List-II):

List-I: a. Chipko Movement   b. Narmada Bachao Andolan   c. Appiko Movement   d. Jungle Bachao Andolan

List-II: 1. Tribes of Singhbhum   2. Panduranga Hegde   3. Sunderlal Bahuguna   4. Medha Patkar and Baba Amte

(A) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4   (B) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1   (C) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1   (D) a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2

✅ Correct Answer: (C)

Q.96 — Match Indian classics (List-I) with their authors (List-II):

List-I: a. Gora   b. The Guide   c. Devdas   d. Godan

List-II: 1. Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay   2. Munshi Premchand   3. R. K. Narayan   4. Rabindranath Tagore

(A) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3   (B) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2   (C) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3   (D) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4

✅ Correct Answer: (B)

Q.98 — Consider the following statements:

1. The United Nations Security Council reflects contemporary geopolitical realities.   2. The G20 includes countries representing a major share of global GDP and population.   3. IMF provides long-term development financing to low-income countries.

(A) 2 only   (B) 1 and 2 only   (C) 2 and 3 only   (D) 1, 2 and 3

✅ Correct Answer: (A) — Statement 1 is debatable (UNSC is widely seen as outdated); Statement 3 is false (that’s the World Bank’s role, not IMF).

Q.99 — During the 17th BRICS Summit (Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, 2025), PM Modi made which of the following suggestions?

1. Making supply chain of critical minerals secure and resilient   2. Promoting responsible use of AI   3. Establishing a unified BRICS military force for regional security   4. Setting up a science and research repository

(A) 1, 2 and 3   (B) 1, 3 and 4   (C) 1, 2 and 4   (D) 2, 3 and 4

✅ Correct Answer: (C)

Q.	Ans	Q.	Ans	Q.	Ans	Q.	Ans	Q.	Ans
1	A	2	D	3	C	4	B	5	A
6	C	7	C	8	D	9	A	10	B
11	A	12	A	13	A	14	A	15	D
16	B	17	D	18	A	19	A	20	D
21	D	22	B	23	B	24	B	25	D
26	B	27	C	28	B	29	C	30	C
31	A	32	D	33	A	34	A	35	A
36	B	37	B	38	C*	39	C	40	B
41	D	42	A	43	D	44	B	45	B
46	B	47	C	48	D	49	C	50	C
51	B	52	D	53	C	54	A	55	B*
56	C	57	A	58	D	59	D	60	B
61	A	62	A	63	A	64	A	65	B
66	D	67	C	68	D	69	C	70	C
71	A	72	A	73	C	74	D	75	C
76	B	77	D	78	C	79	B	80	C
81	A	82	A	83	B	84	C	85	C
86	B	87	A	88	B	89	C	90	A
91	B	92	C	93	D	94	D	95	C
96	B	97	D	98	A	99	C	100	D

Category	Expected Cut-off (out of 200)	Remarks
General (UR)	115-118 marks	Paper was moderately difficult; Assam GK questions well-distributed
OBC / MOBC	110- 112 marks	Subject to final vacancy and applicant numbers
SC	100-105 marks	Based on historical patterns from 2020–2024 cycles
ST	100-105 marks	Based on historical patterns from 2020–2024 cycles

⚠️ Important Disclaimer: These are estimated cut-offs based on paper difficulty analysis and historical APSC CCE patterns. The actual cut-off will be officially declared by APSC along with the Prelims result. Do not make preparation decisions based solely on cut-off estimates.

🎯 Your 3-Step Action Plan – Starting Today

Join Advait IAS Mains Batch 2026 – Limited Seats

Daily answer writing evaluation, GS Paper V intensive sessions, optional subject guidance, and personal mentorship — in Assamese and English medium. 300+ APSC selections. Starting now.

📋 Disclaimer: This article has been prepared by the editorial faculty of Advait IAS, Guwahati, based on questions recalled and compiled immediately after the APSC CCE Prelims 2026 examination held on 5th July 2026. While every effort has been made to ensure accuracy of questions and answers, some questions may differ from the official paper. The correct answers provided are based on faculty analysis and established reference sources. Advait IAS will update this page with corrections once the official question paper and answer key are released by the Assam Public Service Commission at apsc.nic.in. Advait IAS is not affiliated with APSC or any government authority. Expected cut-off estimates are indicative only and not official declarations.